Why do you think that the axiomatic formulation of ZFC "should have meant an end" to the stance that ZFC makes claims that are epistemologically indefensible? Just because I can formalize a statement does not make that statement true, even if it is consistent. Many people (including me and apparently Eliezer, though I would guess that my views are different from his) do not think that the axioms of ZFC are self-evident truths.
In general, I find the argument for Platonism/the validity of ZFC based on common acceptance to be problematic because I just don't think that most people think about these issues seriously. It is a consensus of convenience and inertia. Also, many mathematicians are not Platonists at all but rather formalists -- and constructivism is closer to formalism than Platonism is.
[edit: sorry, the formatting of links and italics in this is all screwy. I've tried editing both the rich-text and the HTML and either way it looks ok while i'm editing it but the formatted terms either come out with no surrounding spaces or two surrounding spaces]
In the latest Rationality Quotes thread, CronoDAS quoted Paul Graham: