thomblake comments on Controlling your inner control circuits - Less Wrong

45 Post author: Kaj_Sotala 26 June 2009 05:57PM

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Comment author: thomblake 02 July 2009 01:57:26PM 0 points [-]

I don't think that's as rigorous as you'd like it to be. I don't grant the "almost certainly false" step.

Take a predicate P which is false for Pab but true in all other cases. Then, you cannot perform the rest of the steps in your proof with P. Consider that there is also the predicate Q such that Qab is true about half the time for arbitrary a and b. How will you show that most situations are like your R?

I'm also not sure your proof really shows a difference in cardinality. Even if most predicates are like your R, there still might be infinitely many true sentences you can construct, even if they're more likely to be false.

Comment author: Technologos 02 July 2009 08:38:44PM 1 point [-]

It's definitely not rigorous, and I tried to highlight that by calling it a heuristic. Without omniscience, I can't prove that the relations hold, but the evidence is uniformly supportive.

Can you name such a predicate other than the trivial "is not" (which is guaranteed for be true for all but one entity, as in A is not A) which is true for even a majority of entities? The best I can do is "is not describable by a message of under N bits," but even then there are self-referential issues. If the majority of predicates were like your P and Q, then why would intelligence be interesting? "Correctness" would be the default state of a proposition and we'd only be eliminating a (relatively) small number of false hypotheses from our massive pool of true ones. Does that match either your experience or the more extensive treatment provided in Eliezer's writings on AI?

If you grant my assertion that Rab is almost certainly false if c is substituted for b, then I think the cardinality proof does follow. Since we cannot put the true sentences in one-to-one correspondence with the false sentences, and by the assertion there are more false sentences, the latter must have a greater (infinite?) cardinality than the former, no?

Comment author: JGWeissman 02 July 2009 09:06:02PM 1 point [-]

The cardinality of the sets of true and false statements is the same. The operation of negation is a bijection between them.

Comment author: Technologos 03 July 2009 09:33:31PM 0 points [-]

You're right. I was considering constructive statements, since the negation of an arbitrary false statement has infinitesimal informational value in search, but you're clearly right when considering all statements.

Comment author: thomblake 02 July 2009 08:46:31PM 0 points [-]

If by "almost certainly false" you mean that say, 1 out of every 10,000 such sentences will be true, then no, that does not entail a higher order of infinity.

Comment author: Technologos 03 July 2009 09:12:29PM 0 points [-]

I meant, as in the math case, that the probability of selecting a true statement by choosing one at random out of the space of all possible statements is 0 (there are true statements, but as a literal infinitesimal).

It's possible that both infinities are countable, as I am not sure how one would prove it either way, but that detail doesn't really matter for the broader argument.

Comment author: Technologos 04 July 2009 06:13:50AM 0 points [-]

See the note by JGWeissman--this is only true when considering constructively true statements (those that carry non-negligible informational content, i.e. not the negation of an arbitrary false statement).