Psychohistorian comments on Are calibration and rational decisions mutually exclusive? (Part two) - Less Wrong

6 Post author: Cyan 24 July 2009 12:49AM

You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.

Comments (15)

You are viewing a single comment's thread. Show more comments above.

Comment author: Psychohistorian 25 July 2009 08:18:47AM 1 point [-]

I suspect it's an issue of jargon or technical difficulty. Like I mentioned, my math background is at least decent, and I have some serious trouble wrapping my mind around what issue is being debated here. I strongly suspect that has more to do with how the issue is presented and explained than with the issue itself, though I could be quite wrong.

There's got to be a way to express this in plain English (or even plain math); how, for example, do a frequentist and a Bayesian see the same problem differently, and why should we care?

Comment author: Cyan 25 July 2009 01:26:23PM 0 points [-]

If you pick out some of the specific jargon words that are opaque to you, I can taboo them or provide links and we'll can see if I can revise the posts into comprehensibility.