Psychohistorian comments on Utilons vs. Hedons - Less Wrong

28 Post author: Psychohistorian 10 August 2009 07:20PM

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Comment author: conchis 13 August 2009 10:07:31AM *  0 points [-]

since Hedons are a subset of Utilons

Not true. Even according to the wiki's usage.

Comment author: timtyler 13 August 2009 08:10:56PM *  -1 points [-]

What the Wiki says is: "Utilons generated by fulfilling base desires are hedons". I think it follows from that that Utilons and Hedons have the same units.

I don't much like the Wiki on these issues - but I do think it a better take on the definitions than this post.

Comment author: conchis 13 August 2009 08:25:19PM *  1 point [-]

I was objecting to the subset claim, not the claim about unit equivalence. (Mainly because somebody else had just made the same incorrect claim elsewhere in the comments to this post.)

As it happens, I'm also happy to object to claim about unit equivalence, whatever the wiki says. (On what seems to be the most common interpretation of utilons around these parts, they don't even have a fixed origin or scale: the preference orderings they represent are invariant to affine transforms of the utilons.)

Comment author: timtyler 14 August 2009 05:38:17PM -1 points [-]

My original claim was about what the Wiki says. Outside that context we would have to start by stating definitions of Hedons and Utilons before there could be much in the way of sensible conversation.