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I just showed how it isn't impossible. Further, while you apparently assume that I meant only that women could have more partners on average than men, I didn't imply that the actual survey would skew either way (on average), only that we have an example of where it would skew female.

I think it might actually be the case, in at least some societies, that fewer men than women have sex at all, on average, due to men who can have sex at all having sex with several or many women each. That's an example of how it could easily skew male on question one, and I don't really get how you believe that it's impossible to have a higher population of one sex than the other that doesn't have sex at all. It seems likely that there would be at least some difference.