It's a good result, but I wonder if the standard deviation is the best parameter. Loss-averse agents react differently to asymmetrical distributions allowing large losses than those allowing large gains.

Edit: For example, the mean of an exponential distribution f(x;t) = L * e^(-L*x) has mean and standard deviation 1/L, but a loss-averse agent is likely to prefer it to the normal distribution N(1/L, 1/L^2), which has the same mean and standard deviation.