RobinZ comments on Expected utility without the independence axiom - Less Wrong
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Again, if suddenly being offered the choice of 1A/1B then 2A/2B as described here, but being "inconsistent", is what you call "losing money", then I don't want to gain money!
But that's not what's happening the paradox. They're (doing something isomorphic to) preferring A to B once and then p*B to p*A once. At no point do they "pay" more for B than A while preferring A to B. At no point does anyone make or offer the money-pumping trades with the subjects, nor have they obligated themselves to do so!
Consider Eliezer's final remarks in The Allais Paradox (I link purely for the convenience of those coming in in the middle):
You're right insofar as Eliezer invokes the Axiom of Independence when he resolves the Allais Paradox using expected value; I do not yet see any way in which Stuart_Armstrong's criteria rule out the preferences (1A > 1B)u(2A < 2B). However, in the scenario Eliezer describes, an agent with those preferences either loses one cent or two cents relative to the agent with (1A > 1B)u(2A > 2B).