nicks comments on Agree, Retort, or Ignore? A Post From the Future - Less Wrong
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A major thesis of Clark is that China at one time or another apparently had every condition or feature advanced to explain the sui generis Industrial Revolution, or that the advanced explanation fails on other grounds.
While neither you nor I can really speak to how much the Emperors respected debts in general, respecting debts and obligations in general is definitely in keeping with Confucian thought, and it's not as if English kings were all that respecting, even in those early times when the king was weakest:
Considering China's long history of commercial expansion and innovation and great merchant fortunes, with financial instruments and arrangements not exceeded until the 1500s in Europe, if even then, it's hard to think that China really suffered much from arbitrary and unjust laws.
Even including the Confucian countries like China & South Korea & Japan? Keep in mind that before the Lost Decade, Japan had a higher per capita than France (by almost $1000). And then there are other non-English-controlled countries like Argentina:
gwern, do you have reference(s) for Chinese "financial instruments and arrangements not exceeded until the 1500s in Europe"? Thanks in advance.
Not up to your scholarly level, I don't think. I'm largely going on the reading/research I did using De Roover and others to write http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Medici_Bank , where I was struck by the wretched subterfuges that merchants had to resort to and the general lack of sophistication, which struck me as quite different from Chinese systems with genuine fiat currency, undisguised interest, and general sophistication (there may've been Chinese insurance in there too, but I've forgotten any details of that).
Well, I've read a paper that supports a different perspective: usury laws were historically circumvented in the West and Middle East through clever use of (what we now call) the Put-Call Parity Theorem: any bonds that were issued were converted into a combination of puts, calls, and possibly rental contracts. This retains the substance of an interest-bearing loan, but without any explicit "interest payment" While the law might have been sophisticated, the resulting use of derivatives contracts was not.
The paper discusses the origin of mortgages in medieval England and the Middle East. It's been a while since I read it, so I can't summarize it, but I was shocked by their rather early trading of derivatives and options.
If it's any good, interest (or ursary) was only legalised in England in 1571, up to a value of 10%.
Citation: Praise and Paradox; Merchants and craftsmen in Elizabethan popular literature, Laura Caroline Stevenson.