Jordan comments on Friedman on Utility - Less Wrong

2 Post author: billswift 22 November 2009 02:22PM

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Comment author: Technologos 22 November 2009 09:53:56PM *  1 point [-]

You then imply a universal or societal "overall" utility function of the form V(x) = āˆ‘( Uₐ(x) ) over all a.

I wasn't intending to imply that the society had homogeneous or even transferable utility functions--that was the substance of my clarification from the previous post.

Your fallacy is in applying the log transform to the individual Uₐ(x) functions rather than to the top-level function V(x) as a whole.

Insofar as there is no decision-maker at the top level, it wouldn't make much sense to do so. The transform is just used (by economists) to compute individuals' decisions in a mathematically simpler format, typically by separating a Cobb-Douglas function into two terms.

The point is that for economists, the two functions produce the same results--people buy the same things, make the same decisions, etc. You cannot aggregate economists' utility functions outside of using a proxy like money. For ethicists, the exact form of the utility function is important, and aggregation is possible--and that's the problem I'm trying to identify.

Comment author: Jordan 22 November 2009 11:08:10PM 2 points [-]

I don't see how aggregating utility functions is possible without some unjustifiable assumptions.

Comment author: Technologos 23 November 2009 03:19:31AM 0 points [-]

Agreed--that's related to what I'm arguing. In particular, utility would have to be transferable, and we'd have to know the form of the function in some detail. Not clear that either of those can be resolved.