Cyan comments on Winning the Unwinnable - Less Wrong

4 Post author: JRMayne 21 January 2010 03:01AM

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Comment author: Cyan 21 January 2010 08:39:40PM 2 points [-]

I would say that such a person doesn't have preferences representable by a utility function.

Comment author: thomblake 21 January 2010 08:42:54PM *  1 point [-]

That's just plain false. Risk-aversion is a valid preference, and can be included as a term in a utility function (at slight risk of circularity, but that's not really a problem).

ETA: well, the stated units were utils, so risk-aversion should be included, so I think you're correct.

Comment deleted 21 January 2010 08:43:36PM [-]
Comment author: Cyan 21 January 2010 09:11:02PM 0 points [-]

I don't think opportunities to make choices are usually considered to be in the domain of a utility function. (If I'm wrong, educate me. I'd appreciate it.)

Comment author: Blueberry 21 January 2010 10:00:27PM *  1 point [-]

Ok, I looked it up and it looks like you and thomblake (ETA: and Technologos. Thanks for correcting me!) are right: the usual way of doing it is to include risk aversion in the utility function. Sorry about that.

Wikipedia on risk-neutral measures does discuss the possibility of adjusting the probabilities, rather than the utility, when calculating the expected value of a choice, but it looks like that's usually done for ease of financial calculation.

So, one explanation for why people don't take the "half or double" gamble is that they do have the log(x) utility function, but don't behave accordingly because of loss aversion (as opposed to risk aversion).

Comment author: RobinZ 21 January 2010 11:00:38PM -1 points [-]