Jack comments on Deontology for Consequentialists - Less Wrong
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This just isn't true. Lying is one of the examples used to explain the universalization maxim. It is forbidden in all contexts. Can't right now, but I'll come back with cites.
Actually I'm going to save you the effort and provide the cite myself:
Specifically, in the Metaphysics of Morals, Kant states that "not suffer[ing our] rights to be trampled underfoot by others with impunity" is a perfect duty of virtue.
I don't see how lying to the murderer fails the test you quote, yet Kant does forbid it elsewhere
ETA: perhaps it's OK to lie out of love of money, but not out of love of man?
Added, years later: by "love of money," I mean that Kant says that it is OK to lie to the thief, but not to the murderer.
We're allowed self-defense and punishment, according to Kant (indeed, it is required). It may, for example, be acceptable to lie to a murderer if he lies to you, since we are obligated to punish those who violate the CI. (EDIT: It could also mean that we don't have to say anything to murderers, we aren't obligated to tell the truth in every situation, but we are obligated to tell the truth in every case where we tell something. )
That said, I'm not not sure exactly what you mean by the original line "Kant only defended the duty not to lie out of philanthropic concerns". It could mean, "Kant defended the duty not to lie, but his reasons for this duty were mere philanthropic ones." It could also mean "With respect to truth-telling, Kant only says we have a duty when we might prefer to lie for philanthropic reasons." Both interpretations are wrong. Here is a quote from Kant's explicit tackling of the issue in the appropriately titled "On a supposed right to lie from philanthropy." Apologies for the long quote but I don't want to have to debate context.