Psy-Kosh comments on Case study: abuse of frequentist statistics - Less Wrong

25 Post author: Cyan 21 February 2010 06:35AM

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Comment author: SilasBarta 22 February 2010 12:30:46AM 2 points [-]

Okay, I think that makes sense. Let me put it into my own words:

The test is guaranteed to be not statistically significant merely by virtue of cutting up the outcome space into pieces, each of which has at least 5% chance of happening. And further, because the null hypothesis has been (arbitrarily) defined to be "the two methods are the same", statistical insignificance means a favorable result.

Does that about cover it? If so, that's pretty bad.

Comment author: Psy-Kosh 22 February 2010 01:01:59AM *  0 points [-]

Wait... actually it may even be worse than that. I'm not even sure it's cleanly partitioning the outcome space. 1/20 = .05, so if some outcomes are above .05, then other outcomes would have to be below .05, right?

So the calculation to get the final result doesn't even really do a proper partitioning of the outcomes if some of the outcomes can be greater than .05 and none less than .05

EDIT: so yeah, it's cutting up not just the outcome space into pieces corresponding to rankings, but mushing some of those together (at best).