Stripping each of the two examples down to the point where all you have left to compare them with is the principle of "ends justifies the means", then sure, they're the same. If our categorical imperative was "the ends never justifies the means" then we could stop gathering information. However, I think the specific means and specific ends matter.

You've constructed your example - or in any case could clearly construct such an example - such that the value of the end in both examples is equivalent from the perspective of the person conducting dark arts. However, the, means are clearly different. Framing someone for murder is far worse. That's the moral difference. If you changed the example to radically reduce the heinousness of the means, then I think the moral case is equivalent in both examples, from the perspective of the person conducting the dark arts.

My final thought is that there's a grand hidden "ethical prior" that we're ignoring here. Regardless of the particular end in question, we should take into account the degree to which rational processes were used to justify that end. We can legitimately claim the moral high ground if the opposing side fails to provide any rational justification for the end they are promulgating.