In 2004, The United States government executed Cameron Todd Willingham via lethal injection for the crime of murdering his young children by setting fire to his house.
In 2009, David Grann wrote an extended examination of the evidence in the Willingham case for The New Yorker, which has called into question Willingham's guilt. One of the prosecutors in the Willingham case, John Jackson, wrote a response summarizing the evidence from his current perspective. I am not summarizing the evidence here so as to not give the impression of selectively choosing the evidence.
A prior probability estimate for Willingham's guilt (certainly not a close to optimal prior probability) is the probability that a fire resulting in the fatalities of children was intentionally set. The US Fire Administration puts this probability at 13%. The prior probability could be made more accurate by breaking down that 13% of intentionally set fires into different demographic sets, or looking at correlations with other things such as life insurance data.
My question for Less Wrong: Just how innocent is Cameron Todd Willingham? Intuitively, it seems to me that the evidence for Willingham's innocence is of higher magnitude than the evidence for Amanda Knox's innocence. But the prior probability of Willingham being guilty given his children died in a fire in his home is higher than the probability that Amanda Knox committed murder given that a murder occurred in Knox's house.
Challenge question: What does an idealized form of Bayesian Justice look like? I suspect as a start that it would result in a smaller percentage of defendants being found guilty at trial. This article has some examples of the failures to apply Bayesian statistics in existing justice systems.
I've been kicking myself for months for not having done a better job of making the point that it shouldn't matter: so long as you take into account all of the relevant information, Bayes' theorem says nothing about the order in which you process the information.
What we label "prior probability" in everyday contexts like this is just an arbitrary matter of convenience: "priors" are in fact posteriors based on information not explicitly mentioned -- and that information is still there, whether we mention it or not.
Thus, for example, if you assign a high "prior" to Amanda Knox's guilt because of Meredith Kercher's death, you still have to lower the probability (to something around the "pretty middle-class female honor student" range) upon learning that Kercher's death was caused by Rudy Guede -- the screening off effect doesn't go away just because you decided to call that state of knowledge the "prior"; it just acquires the label of "evidence of innocence."
(Just to be clear, I'm not suggesting you don't realize this; I just think the point needs to be reinforced.)