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I really doubt that same neural mechanism is involved. Like P= 0.0005. We're dealing with totally different areas of the brain that evolved hundreds of millions of years apart. I'm not even sure I see an obvious sense in which the optical illusion corresponds to the cognitive bias.
Yeah, that was my intuition (though I hadn't thought about it enough to get that confident). I was just posing the question to see if anyone actually wanted to argue a connection between the two processes or if they were only using it as an analogy. I got the impression that Yvain was using it as an analogy but that Nick was arguing or assuming that both cases were actually using the same cognitive processes.