AlanCrowe comments on Unknown knowns: Why did you choose to be monogamous? - Less Wrong
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You are making me feel old. My notation was orthodox in 1958. Indeed, in A Course Of Pure Mathematics, Tenth Edition, section 157, Hardy writes:
The distinction between the two functions is adequately shown by denoting the first by
and the second by
, in which case the theorem takes the form
though this notation is also open to objection, in that it is a little misleading to denote the functions
and
whose forms as functions of x are quite different from one another, by the same letter f in
and
.
I think your notation is still orthodox, or at least fairly common, nowadays. Wikipedia uses it on its total derivative page, for example, and it seems familiar to me.