AlanCrowe comments on Unknown knowns: Why did you choose to be monogamous? - Less Wrong

48 Post author: WrongBot 26 June 2010 02:50AM

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Comment author: AlanCrowe 28 June 2010 08:37:55PM *  2 points [-]

You are making me feel old. My notation was orthodox in 1958. Indeed, in A Course Of Pure Mathematics, Tenth Edition, section 157, Hardy writes:

The distinction between the two functions is adequately shown by denoting the first by and the second by , in which case the theorem takes the form though this notation is also open to objection, in that it is a little misleading to denote the functions and whose forms as functions of x are quite different from one another, by the same letter f in and .

Comment author: cupholder 28 June 2010 09:20:12PM 0 points [-]

I think your notation is still orthodox, or at least fairly common, nowadays. Wikipedia uses it on its total derivative page, for example, and it seems familiar to me.