Like Nancy, I've never heard of significant general societal prejudice against people with wide feet, ...
And like Nancy, you didn't finish reading the comment! Again: people judge others based on their shoes. People with wide feet are unable to buy fashionable shoes because their options are so restricted, and virtually all shoes are made to fit people with normal feet.
Of course people don't discriminate against wide feet per se; they do, however, discriminate on the basis of the inevitable result of having wide feet.
Does it make sense now?
This struck me as pretty close to trolling, since I don't think it's a big inferential step to take that as suggesting that the unnamed "angry" commenters that left you "scared" might end up committing such crimes.
Would you consider it trolling for someone to say this (reworded to obscure origin; comes from an actual LW comment):
If someone makes a leap from, "Man, I wish you were better able to sell your product" to "someone should feel so bad for you that they buy your product", that is a problem. It's bad if someone is trying to make a living selling a product but can't -- yet I would never equate that with an obligation for people to buy! That mentality is downright scary, because it leads to all kinds of evil, like rape.
Because that logic is just as tenuous ... and makes a more serious accusation. For those who have made such comments -- and some are probably reading -- I hope they get the message.
And like Nancy, you didn't finish reading the comment! . . . .
Does it make sense now?
I did read your whole comment and I understand that you were making the point that men with wide feet face indirect prejudice because they can’t buy fashionable shoes and society judges people on their fashion choices. What I didn’t understand was how that point related to the issues of manufacturer bias and incentives originally being discussed in the thread.
Nancy’s original post was to the effect that the lack of clothing choices for fat women reflected a bias (among...
I'm trying to better understand the relationship between incentivization and rationality, and it occurred to me that it is a "folk fact" around here that large financial incentives don't make cognitive biases go away.
However, I can't seem to find any papers that actually say this. It's not easy to google for (I have tried) so I wonder if the Less Wrong collective memory knows how to find the papers?
Is there a pattern to which biases go away with incentivization? Do we have at least 5 examples of biases that go away with incentivization and 5 examples that don't go away with incentivization?
As an incentive, I'll paypal $10 to the commenter whose answer is least biased and most useful.