Let's put the store-side issue aside for a minute. Do you agree with my contention that, "A man with wide feet will look less fashionable -- irrespective of any fashion sense he might have -- as a result of not having access to the variety of shoes that people with normal feet have?"
Why does your question have more importance for this issue than mine? And why do people get to ignore the reasoning I give with impunity when replying to me?
"A man with wide feet will look less fashionable -- irrespective of any fashion sense he might have -- as a result of not having access to the variety of shoes that people with normal feet have?"
I'm not sure I agree with that. It seems plausible but I'm not sure people pay that much attention to shoes or for that matter to how "fashionable" people are dressed (there's a necessary disclaimer here that I'm a math grad student. It might very well be different if one were talking about more status and signaling conscious professions like...
I'm trying to better understand the relationship between incentivization and rationality, and it occurred to me that it is a "folk fact" around here that large financial incentives don't make cognitive biases go away.
However, I can't seem to find any papers that actually say this. It's not easy to google for (I have tried) so I wonder if the Less Wrong collective memory knows how to find the papers?
Is there a pattern to which biases go away with incentivization? Do we have at least 5 examples of biases that go away with incentivization and 5 examples that don't go away with incentivization?
As an incentive, I'll paypal $10 to the commenter whose answer is least biased and most useful.