How justifiably confident can you (JoshuaZ) be about the impact of shoes on someone's fashionability and the resulting prejudices people have on that basis?
Very low confidence. Hence my remark that your claim seemed plausible.
But why would it have that impact? Fat women can, introspectively, understand why they don't give a shit about helping wide-footed men, and why they'd take a hit to status if they did so.
Missing the point. No one is going to take a status hit from helping out wide-footed men. People might get a status hit for helping out "people with crappy shoes" but that's not the same category. Close to no one has the same negative status association of "wide-footed men" that they have with "fat women." That's the distinction. Let's say you're at a cocktail party. Which do you think we'll have a larger negative status impact when asked what you do for a living? "Oh, I've started a company that makes clothing for fat women" or "Oh, I've started a company that makes shoes for men with feet that are wider than the norm?" These don't have the same status result. And if you want to make it more stark, imagine a male who works as a model for wide-footed shoes as opposed to a female who models clothing for fat people. Which one do you think will cause more of a status hit on a random internet forum if an otherwise anonymous individual mentioned that as their job?
I don't know, but it must be pretty big of a hit for the wide shoe model, since, um, there aren't any.
Close to no one has the same negative status association of "wide-footed men" that they have with "fat women." That's the distinction.
But not the relevant distinction. If I show up at that cocktail party, all people know is that I have crappy shoes. And no, I can't just say to them, "Oh, discount this aspect of me: I have crappy shoes because they don't make them in my size; really, I totally get that nice shoes are importan...
I'm trying to better understand the relationship between incentivization and rationality, and it occurred to me that it is a "folk fact" around here that large financial incentives don't make cognitive biases go away.
However, I can't seem to find any papers that actually say this. It's not easy to google for (I have tried) so I wonder if the Less Wrong collective memory knows how to find the papers?
Is there a pattern to which biases go away with incentivization? Do we have at least 5 examples of biases that go away with incentivization and 5 examples that don't go away with incentivization?
As an incentive, I'll paypal $10 to the commenter whose answer is least biased and most useful.