cupholder comments on Financial incentives don't get rid of bias? Prize for best answer. - Less Wrong
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There's no explicit question in the comment of NL's I think you're thinking of, so I imagine you mean that the statements in her comment could be read as implying an already-answered question, which makes the comment rude. That hardly registers on my rudeness detector; unless it's part of a systematic pattern of behavior, it's innocuous IMO.
Still, let me pretend I'm SilasBarta and suppose her comment is rude.
OK, I'm SilasBarta. Nancy's replied to me. Most of my comment seems to have gone right past her and she's replied without having understood me. That means I have failed to make myself as clear to her as I'd like, and I want to fix that. It's her first reply to me, she's not being overtly confrontational, and people often write sloppily when replying to others on the Internet, so let's assume good faith. As such, I reply to emphasize my more detailed explanation of how people with wide feet suffer prejudice, this time without any snitty rhetorical questions (or accusations of bad faith). I might write something like: 'Let me clarify. Although people with wide feet may not suffer much direct prejudice, they nonetheless suffer effective prejudice indirectly because it hurts my ability to signal via e.g. choice of shoes, as I pointed out in my earlier comment.'
I don't believe I did use the way you said what you said as a pretense for ignoring its good points. I do think you might have been right when you tried picking out the pity-oriented subtext of NL's original post, but just because I didn't mention it doesn't mean I ignored it wholesale - it just means I didn't have anything to say in response to it. There are a lot of comments on Less Wrong that make good points - presented abrasively or otherwise - that I don't reply to. (Also, I wouldn't even have complained to you if you hadn't solicited feedback on why people had voted down your original run of comments.)