thomblake comments on A Proof of Occam's Razor - Less Wrong

3 Post author: Unknowns 10 August 2010 02:20PM

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Comment author: thomblake 10 August 2010 07:44:31PM 4 points [-]

This really doesn't seem to have formally proven anything, and so at least the title should not be "a proof of Occam's razor". And it doesn't seem like you've done anything more interesting or useful here than, say, Solomonoff induction, which can already be seen as a formalization of Occam's razor.

Maybe if you made your proof more rigorous and explained why you think the statement you're trying to prove is relevant to anyone (or should properly be called Occam's razor) then that would help.