cousin_it comments on A Proof of Occam's Razor - Less Wrong

3 Post author: Unknowns 10 August 2010 02:20PM

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Comment author: cousin_it 10 August 2010 09:02:52PM *  0 points [-]

Why do you want the theorem to hold for every logically consistent prior? This looks backwards. Occamian reasoning should show why some prior distributions work better than others, not say they're all equally good. For example, the Solomonoff prior is one possible formalization of Occam's Razor.

Comment author: Unknowns 11 August 2010 01:15:54AM *  1 point [-]

Because for every logically consistent prior, there should be a logically possible world where that prior works well. If there isn't, and you can prove this to me, then I would exclude priors that don't work well in any possible world.

I want it to apply to every possible world because if we understand the Razor in such a way that it doesn't apply in every possible world, then the fact that Razor works well is a contingent fact. If this is the case there can't be any conclusive proof of it, nor does it seem that there can be any ultimate reason why the Razor works well except "we happen to be in one of the possible worlds where it works well." Yes, there could be many interpretations which are more practical in our actual world, but I was more interested in an interpretation which is necessary in principle.

Comment author: cousin_it 11 August 2010 06:48:08AM 0 points [-]

This is even more backwards. There are logically possible worlds where an overseer god punishes everyone who uses Bayesian updating. Does this mean we should stop doing science? Looking for "non-contingent" facts and "ultimate" reasons strikes me as a very unfruitful area of research.

Comment author: Unknowns 11 August 2010 07:26:19AM 1 point [-]

Different people have different interests.