I am very late to the discussion. I have not read Kelley's papers in detail, so pardon me if my question betrays a fundamental misunderstanding of what you wrote: How can "(Kelly's version of) Occam's razor says the first [world] is simpler" and give us "the intuitively correct answer" if an infinite number of particles will be emitted in the first world, even though Kelley has already specified that the device will only emit a finite number of particles?