Eliezer_Yudkowsky comments on A note on the description complexity of physical theories - Less Wrong

19 Post author: cousin_it 09 November 2010 04:25PM

You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.

Comments (177)

You are viewing a single comment's thread. Show more comments above.

Comment author: Eliezer_Yudkowsky 10 November 2010 07:04:00PM *  4 points [-]

Never mind usefulness, it seems to me that "Evolution by natural selection occurs" and "God made the world and everything in it, but did so in such a way as to make it look exactly as if evolution by natural selection occured" are not the same hypothesis, that one of them is true and one of them is false, that it is simplicity that leads us to say which is which, and that we do, indeed, prefer the simpler of two theories that make the same predictions, rather than calling them the same theory.

Comment author: cousin_it 10 November 2010 08:37:01PM *  2 points [-]

While my post was pretty misguided (I even wrote an apology for it), your comment looks even more misguided to me. In effect, you're saying that between Lagrangian and Hamiltonian mechanics, at most one can be "true". And you're also saying that which of them is "true" depends on the programming language we use to encode them. Are you sure you want to go there?

Comment author: JGWeissman 10 November 2010 08:54:40PM 2 points [-]

In effect, you're saying that between Lagrangian and Hamiltonian mechanics, at most one can be "true".

We may even be able to observe which one. Actually, I am pretty sure that if I looked closely at QM and these two formulations, I would go with Hamiltonian mechanics.

Comment author: cousin_it 11 November 2010 01:35:07AM *  2 points [-]

Ah, but which Hamiltonian mechanics is the true one: the one that says real numbers are infinite binary expansions, or the one that says real numbers are Dedekind cuts? I dunno, your way of thinking makes me queasy.

Comment author: cata 10 November 2010 07:49:51PM *  2 points [-]

I think there's a distinction that should be made explicit between "a theory" and "our human mental model of a theory." The theory is the same, but we rightfully try to interpret it in the simplest possible way, to make it clearer to think about.

Usually, two different mental models necessarily imply two different theories, so it's easy to conflate the two, but sometimes (in mathematics especially) that's just not true.

Comment author: Perplexed 10 November 2010 07:55:11PM 0 points [-]

Hmmm. But the very first posting in the sequences says something about "making your beliefs pay rent in expected experience". If you don't expect different experiences in choosing between the theories, it seems that you are making an unfalsifiable claim.

I'm not totally convinced that the two theories do not make different predictions in some sense. The evolution theory pretty much predicts that we are not going to see a Rapture any time soon, whereas the God theory leaves the question open. Not exactly "different predictions", but something close.

Comment author: Eliezer_Yudkowsky 11 November 2010 12:39:00AM *  3 points [-]

Both theories are trying to pay rent on the same house; that's the problem here, which is quite distinct from neither theory paying rent at all.

Comment author: Perplexed 11 November 2010 12:56:40AM 0 points [-]

Clever. But ...

If theories A and B pay rent on the same house, then the theory (A OR B) pays enough rent so that the stronger theory A need pay no additional rent at all. Yet you seem to prefer A to B, and also to (A OR B).

Comment author: JGWeissman 11 November 2010 01:02:19AM 1 point [-]

(A OR B) is more probable than A, but if A is much more probable than B, then saying "(A OR B)" instead of "A" is leaving out information.

Comment author: ArisKatsaris 11 November 2010 01:02:02AM *  0 points [-]

Let's say A = (MWI is correct) and B = (Copenhagen)

The equivalent of "A OR B" is the statement "either Copenhagen or MWI is correct", and I'm sure everyone here assigns "A OR B" a higher prior than either A or B separately.

But that's not really a theory, it's a disjunction between two different theories, so ofcourse we want to understand which of the two is actually the correct one. Not sure what your objection is here.

EDITED to correct a wrong term.

Comment author: Perplexed 11 November 2010 02:17:54AM *  1 point [-]

Not sure what your objection is here.

I'm not sure I have one. It is just a little puzzling how we might reconcile two things:

  • EY's very attractive intuition that of two theories making the same predictions, one is true and the other ... what? False? Wrong? Well, ... "not quite so true".
  • The tradition in Bayesianism and standard rationality (and logical positivism, for that matter) that the truth of a statement is to be found through its observable consequences.

ETA: Bayes's rule only deals with the fraction of reality-space spanned by a sentence, never with the number of characters needed to express the sentence.

Comment author: cousin_it 11 November 2010 04:09:51AM *  2 points [-]

There's a useful heuristic to solve tricky questions about "truths" and "beliefs": reduce them to questions about decisions and utilities. For example, the Sleeping Beauty problem is very puzzling if you insist on thinking in terms of subjective probabilities, but becomes trivial once you introduce any payoff structure. Maybe we could apply this heuristic here? Believing in one formulation of a theory over a different equivalent formulation isn't likely to win a Bayesian reasoner many dollars, no matter what observations come in.

Comment author: Perplexed 11 November 2010 04:56:03AM 1 point [-]

Believing in one formulation of a theory over a different equivalent formulation isn't likely to win a Bayesian reasoner many dollars, no matter what observations come in.

Actually, it might help a reasoner saddled with bounded rationality. One theory might require less computation to get from theory to prediction, or it might require less memory resources to store. Having a fast, easy-to-use theory can be like money in the bank to someone who needs lots and lots of predictions.

It might be interesting to look at that idea someone here was talking about that merged ideas from Zadeh's fuzzy logic with Bayesianism. Instead of simple Bayesian probabilities which can be updated instantaneously, we may need to think of fuzzy probabilities which grow sharper as we devote cognitive resources to refining them. But with a good, simple theory we can get a sharper picture quicker.

Comment author: cousin_it 11 November 2010 05:03:36AM *  0 points [-]

I don't understand your point about bounded rationality. If you know theory X is equivalent to theory Y, you can believe in X more, but use Y for calculations.

Comment author: Jack 11 November 2010 05:18:34AM 0 points [-]

Thats the definition of a free-floating belief isn't it? If you only have so much computational resources even storing theory X in your memory is a waste of space.

Comment author: ata 11 November 2010 04:25:51AM *  1 point [-]

For example, the Sleeping Beauty problem is very puzzling if you insist on thinking in terms of subjective probabilities, but becomes completely clear once you introduce a payoff structure.

Heh, I was just working on a post on that point.

Believing in one formulation of a theory over a different equivalent formulation isn't likely to win a Bayesian reasoner many dollars, no matter what observations come in. Therefore the reasoner should assign degrees of belief to equivalence classes of theories rather than individual theories.

I agree that that is true about equivalent formulations, literally isomorphic theories (as in this comment), but is that really the case about MWI vs. Copenhagen? Collapse is claimed as something that's actually happening out there in reality, not just as another way of looking at the same thing. Doesn't it have to be evaluated as a hypothesis on its own, such that the conjunction (MWI & Collapse) is necessarily less probable than just MWI?

Comment author: Jack 11 November 2010 04:32:45AM *  0 points [-]

Except the whole quantum suicide thing does create payoff structures. In determining weather or not to play a game of Quantum Russian Roulette you take your estimated winnings for playing if MWI and Quantum immortality is true and your estimated winnings if MWI or Quantum immortality is false and weigh them according to the probability you assign each theory.

(ETA: But this seems to be a quirky feature of QM interpretation, not a feature of empirically equivalent theories generally.)

(ETA 2: And it is a quirky feature of QM interpretation because MWI+Quantum Immortality is empirically equivalent to single world theories is a really quirky way.)

Comment author: cousin_it 11 November 2010 04:52:13AM *  1 point [-]

IMO quantum suicide/immortality is so mysterious that it can't support any definite conclusions about the topic we're discussing. I'm beginning to view it as a sort of thread-killer, like "consciousness". See a comment that mentions QI, collapse the whole thread because you know it's not gonna make you happier.

Comment author: Jack 11 November 2010 05:04:47AM 0 points [-]

I agree that neither we nor anyone else do a good job discussing it. It seems like a pretty important issue though.

Comment author: ata 11 November 2010 02:59:37AM *  2 points [-]

EY's very attractive intuition that of two theories making the same predictions, one is true and the other ... what? False? Wrong? Well, ... "not quite so true".

"More Wrong". :)

I can think of two circumstances under which two theories would make the same predictions (that is, where they'd systematically make the same predictions, under all possible circumstances under which they could be called upon to do so):

  • They are mathematically isomorphic — in this case I would say they are the same theory.
  • They contain isomorphic substructures that are responsible for the identical predictions. In this case, the part outside what's needed to actually generate the predictions counts as extra detail, and by the conjunction rule, this reduces the probability of the "outer" hypothesis.

The latter is where collapse vs. MWI falls, and where "we don't know why the fundamental laws of physics are what they are" vs. "God designed the fundamental laws of physics, and we don't know why there's a God" falls, etc.

Comment author: Peter_de_Blanc 11 November 2010 03:14:10AM 1 point [-]

The tradition in Bayesianism and standard rationality (and logical positivism, for that matter) that the truth of a statement is to be found through its observable consequences.

Since when is that the Bayesian tradition? Citation needed.

Comment author: Perplexed 11 November 2010 03:30:02AM 0 points [-]

the truth of a statement is to be found through its observable consequences.

Since when?

Well, I guess I am taking "observable consequences" to be something closely related to P(E|H)/P(E). And I am taking "the truth of a statement" to have something to do with P(H|E) adjusted for any bias that might have been present in the prior P(H).

I'm afraid this explanation is all the citation I can offer. I would be happy to hear your opinion along the lines of "That ain't 'truth'. 'Truth' is <something else> to a Bayesian"

Comment deleted 11 November 2010 03:36:15AM *  [-]
Comment author: Jack 11 November 2010 03:49:31AM *  1 point [-]

Observable consequences are part of what controls the plausibility of a statement, but not its truth. An unobservable truth can still be a truth.

...

There is a thing called reality, which causes our experiences and a lot of other things, characterized by its ability to not always do what we want or expect.

If we're going to distinguish 'truth' from our 'observations' then we need to be able to define 'reality' as something other than 'experience generator' (or else decouple truth and reality).

Comment author: Jack 11 November 2010 03:29:11AM 0 points [-]

How do you adjudicate a wager without observable consequences?

Comment author: Jack 11 November 2010 03:22:11AM *  0 points [-]

Well the second of those things already has very serious problems. See for example Quine's Confirmation Holism. We've know for a long time that our theories are under-determined by our observations and that we need some other way of adjudicating empirically equivalent theories. This was our basis for preferring Special Relativity over Lorentz Ether Theory. Parsimony seems like one important criteria but involves two questions:

  1. One man's simple seems like another man's complex. How do you rigorously identify the more parsimonious between two hypotheses. Lots of people thing God is a very simple hypothesis. The most seemingly productive approach that I know of is the algorithmic complexity one that is popular here.

  2. Is parsimony important because parsimonious theories are more likely be 'real' or is the issue really one of developing clear and helpful prediction generating devices?

The way the algorithmic probability stuff has been leveraged is by building candidates for universal priors. But this doesn't seem like the right way to do it. Beliefs are about anticipating future experience so they should take the form of 'Sensory experience x will occur at time t" (or something reducible to this). Theories aren't like this. Theories are frameworks that let us take some sensory experience and generate beliefs about our future sensory experiences.

So I'm not sure it makes sense to have beliefs distinguishing empirically identical theories. That seems like a kind of category error- a map-territory confusion. The question is, what do we do with this algorithmic complexity stuff that was so promising. I think we still have good reasons to be thinking cleanly about complicated science- the QM interpretation debate isn't totally irrelevant. But it isn't obvious algorithmic simplicity is what we want out of our theories (nor is it clear that what we want is the same thing other agents might want out of their theories). (ETA: Though of course K-complexity might still be helpful in making predictions between two possible futures that are empirically distinct. For example, we can assign a low probability to finding evidence of a moon landing conspiracy since the theory that would predict discovering such evidence is unparsimonious. But if that is the case, if theories can be ruled improbable on the basis of the structure of the theory alone why can we only do this with empirically distinct theories? Shouldn't all theories be understandable in this way?)

Comment author: cousin_it 11 November 2010 02:40:31AM *  0 points [-]

Thanks, your comment is a very clear formulation of the reason why I wrote the post. Probably even better than the post itself.

I'm halfway tempted to write yet another post about complexity (maybe in the discussion area), summarizing all the different positions expressed here in the comments and bringing out the key questions. The last 24 hours have been a very educational experience for me. Or maybe let someone else do it, because I don't want to spam LW.

Comment author: ArisKatsaris 11 November 2010 03:05:03AM 0 points [-]

"Bayes's rule only deals with the fraction of reality-space spanned by a sentence"

Well, that's the thing: reality-space doesn't concern just our observations of the universe. If two different theories make the same predictions about our observations but disagree about which mechanism produces those events we observe, those are two different slices of reality-space.

Comment author: Jack 11 November 2010 01:05:55AM 0 points [-]

But that's not really a theory, it's a conjuction between two different theories,

It's actually the disjunction.

Comment author: ArisKatsaris 11 November 2010 01:12:50AM 0 points [-]

Yes, apologies. Fixed above.

Comment author: JGWeissman 10 November 2010 08:10:00PM 0 points [-]

Making the same predictions means making the same assignments of probabilities to outcomes.

Comment author: Perplexed 11 November 2010 12:50:35AM 0 points [-]

Which brings us back to an issue which I was debating here a couple of weeks ago: Is there a difference between an event being impossible, and an event being of measure zero?

Orthodox Bayesianism says there is no difference and strongly advises against thinking either to be the case. I'm wondering whether there isn't some way to make the idea work that there is a distinction to be made - that some things are completely impossible given a theory, while other things are merely of infinitesimal probability.

Comment author: timtyler 11 November 2010 10:31:22PM 2 points [-]

There's a proposal to use surreal numbers for utilities. Such an approach was used for go by Conway.

Comment author: wnoise 15 November 2010 10:14:05AM 0 points [-]

It might be more accurate to say that surreal numbers are a subset of the numbers that were invented by Conway to describe the value of game positions.

Comment author: Perplexed 12 November 2010 01:02:20AM 0 points [-]

Interesting suggestion. I ought to look into that. Thx.