The two are related, so the overloading is probably not accidental.
Not accidental and not surprising either. But still undesirable. It obfuscates the meaning of people who are talking about either of the concepts specifically.
I was curious enough to look into some background. "Different but basically the same for practical purposes" seems to be the conclusion.
Graham Priest discusses The Liar's Paradox for a NY Times blog. It seems that one way of solving the Liar's Paradox is defining dialethei, a true contradiction. Less Wrong, can you do what modern philosophers have failed to do and solve or successfully dissolve the Liar's Paradox? This doesn't seem nearly as hard as solving free will.
This post is a practice problem for what may become a sequence on unsolved problems in philosophy.