I'm a bit surprised that anyone could conceive of a concept of truth independent of language. I've always considered truth as an attribute of sentences - linguistic objects.
"Snow is white" is true if, and only if, snow is white - Tarski's material adequacy condition - only makes sense if there is a fact of the matter about whether or not snow is white independent of language.
Tarski left out some of the fine print. That "if and only if" works only under the prior assumption that "snow" designates snow, "white" designates white, and "is" designates the appropriate infix binary relation.
In other words, "Snow is white" is true only if we know that "Snow is white" is a sentence in the English language.
Graham Priest discusses The Liar's Paradox for a NY Times blog. It seems that one way of solving the Liar's Paradox is defining dialethei, a true contradiction. Less Wrong, can you do what modern philosophers have failed to do and solve or successfully dissolve the Liar's Paradox? This doesn't seem nearly as hard as solving free will.
This post is a practice problem for what may become a sequence on unsolved problems in philosophy.