To what extent does a pre-existing belief in a stable order that is waiting to be perfected lead to the primacy of formal science in a society? I think that is a really interesting question.

This is a good starting point for inquiry. I would change "does" to "did." I would also broaden the question to include cons as well as pros, i.e. "To what extent did a philosophy including a pre-existing belief in a stable order that is waiting to be perfected lead to the primacy of formal science in a society?" If there are anti-scientific effects from any philosophy or historical philosophies believing in a stable order, that's important to keep track of too if one is making a claim about those philosophies and not just their positive aspect.