Well, from the lack of a reply and the four downvotes, I take it that the question is sincere and that at least four people believe it is meaningful. So, I have two questions:
How many of the people who have responded so far seem to have understood the question?
Suppose (counterfactually) that counterfactual Omega asked counterfactual you what factual Omega should write in the factual test (ignoring what factual you actually does, of course). Should the answer (the instruction to Omega to write either "even" or "odd") be the opposite in this counterfactual case than in the case you originally presented?
I don't understand the problem, but it seems that you think that the result on the calculator affects some kind of objective probability that Q is even - a probability that is the same in both factual and counterfactual worlds. It doesn't, of course. All probability is subjective. Evidence observed in one world has no influence on counterfactual worlds where the evidence did not appear.
But since I suspect you already know this, it seems likely that I simply don't have a clue what your question was and why you decided to ask it in that way.
Suppose (counterfactually) that counterfactual Omega asked counterfactual you what factual Omega should write in the factual test (ignoring what factual you actually does, of course). Should the answer (the instruction to Omega to write either "even" or "odd") be the opposite in this counterfactual case than it the case you originally presented?
So far, shokwave clearly gets it. Compare to any other sophisticated question asked in a language you aren't familiar with. Here, you need to be sufficiently comfortable with counterfactuals, ...
Consider the following thought experiment ("Counterfactual Calculation"):
Should you write "even" on the counterfactual test sheet, given that you're 99% sure that the answer is "even"?
This thought experiment contrasts "logical knowledge" (the usual kind) and "observational knowledge" (what you get when you look at a calculator display). The kind of knowledge you obtain by observing things is not like the kind of knowledge you obtain by thinking yourself. What is the difference (if there actually is a difference)? Why does observational knowledge work in your own possible worlds, but not in counterfactuals? How much of logical knowledge is like observational knowledge, and what are the conditions of its applicability? Can things that we consider "logical knowledge" fail to apply to some counterfactuals?
(Updateless analysis would say "observational knowledge is not knowledge" or that it's knowledge only in the sense that you should bet a certain way. This doesn't analyze the intuition of knowing the result after looking at a calculator display. There is a very salient sense in which the result becomes known, and the purpose of this thought experiment is to explore some of counterintuitive properties of such knowledge.)