Given the number of committed rapes that are successfully convicted (about 1 in 16)

Citation?

Aren't those the odds that assumes that whenever a rape is reported and no one goes to jail, this means a rapist wasn't successfully convicted and punished for his crime? Meaning that whenever someone is suspected of a rape they should have been found guilty. Kinda at odds with not just having a good map of reality but, the foundation of most modern Western legal systems (actually it dosen't even work with guilty until proven innocent which is another common way things can be set up).

A casual google seems to indicate that this is indeed so

One of several sources:

Fewer than one in 16 rapes reported to the police results in a conviction in court

Not all rapes that occurred are reported, not all that are reported occurred.