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TheOtherDave comments on Is Morality a Valid Preference? - Less Wrong
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Ah, I see what you mean. So if the world changed such that eliminating the inclination cost less than eliminating the intuition -- say, we discover a cheap-to-produce pill that makes everybody who takes it heterosexual without any other side-effects -- a good utilitarian would, by the same token, conclude that the best long-term equilibrium is one in which the inclination disappeared. Yes?
In principle, I suppose so (though if you're in a relationship, a pill to change your orientation is hardly low-cost!)
Agreed, though that simply extends the definition of "long-term equilibrium" a few generations.
Anyway, cool; I'd misunderstood your original claim to be somewhat more sweeping than what you actually meant, which is why I was uncertain. Thanks for clarifying!