Perplexed comments on Conceptual Analysis and Moral Theory - Less Wrong

60 Post author: lukeprog 16 May 2011 06:28AM

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Comment author: Perplexed 16 May 2011 02:31:09PM 3 points [-]

As one example, consider some commonly used definitions for 'morally good':

  • that which produces the most pleasure for the most people
  • that which is in accord with the divine will
  • ...

Those aren't definitions of 'morally good'. They are theories of the morally good. I seriously doubt that there are any real philosophers that are confused about the distinction.

Comment author: Peterdjones 16 May 2011 07:25:43PM *  0 points [-]

Those aren't definitions of 'morally good'. They are theories of the morally good

exactly what I wanted to say!

Comment author: lukeprog 16 May 2011 05:36:47PM 1 point [-]

Right, but part of each of these theories is that using one set of definitions for moral terms is better than using another set of definitions, often for reasons similar to the network-style conceptual analysis proposed by Jackson.

Comment author: Perplexed 17 May 2011 04:54:13AM 2 points [-]

If you are saying that meta-ethical definitions can never be perfectly neutral wrt a choice between ethical theories, then I have to agree. Every ethical theory comes dressed in a flattering meta-ethical evening gown that reveals the nice stuff but craftily hides the ugly bits.

But that doesn't mean that we shouldn't at least strive for neutrality. Personally, I would prefer to have the definition of "morally good" include consequential goods, deontological goods, and virtue goods. If the correct moral theory can explain this trinity in terms of one fundamental kind of good, plus two derived goods, well that is great. But that work is part of normative ethics, not meta-ethics. And it certainly is not accomplished by imposing a definition.

Comment author: lukeprog 24 May 2011 04:59:57AM 0 points [-]

I'm doing a better job of explaining myself over here.

Comment author: Peterdjones 18 May 2011 02:50:57PM 0 points [-]

Personally, I would prefer to have the definition of "morally good" "morally good" include consequential goods, deontological goods, and virtue goods.

All of those already include the pre-theoretic notion of "good".

Comment author: Perplexed 18 May 2011 05:43:19PM 0 points [-]

Correct. Which is why I think it is a mistake if they are not accounted for in the post-theoretic notion.

Comment author: Peterdjones 18 May 2011 03:01:05PM 0 points [-]

Right, but part of each of these theories is that using one set of definitions for moral terms is better than using another set of definitions, often for reasons similar to the network-style conceptual analysis proposed by Jackson.

But then confusion about definitions is actually confusion about theories.

Comment author: Peterdjones 18 May 2011 03:55:33PM *  0 points [-]

The idea that people by default have no idea at all what moral language is hard to credit, whether claimed of people in general, or claimed by individuals of themselves. Everyone, after all, is brought up from an early age with a great deal of moral exhortation, to do Good things and refrain from Naughty things. Perhaps not everybody gets very far along the Kohlberg scale, but no one is starting from scratch. People may not be able to articulate a clear definition, or not the kind of definition one would expect from a theory, but that does not mean one needs a theory of metaethics to give a meaning to "moral".

Comment author: Perplexed 18 May 2011 05:40:19PM 0 points [-]

that does not mean one needs a theory of metaethics to give a meaning to "moral".

No. One only needs a theory of metaethics to prevent philosophers from giving it a disastrously wrong meaning.