PhilGoetz comments on A simple counterexample to deBlanc 2007? - Less Wrong

3 Post author: PhilGoetz 30 May 2011 05:09AM

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Comment author: PhilGoetz 30 May 2011 03:08:23PM 0 points [-]

The probability function I chose meets the requirements in the paper; therefore it is a case that the theorem should apply to.

Trying to set p(n) to 1/U(n) * 1/2^n is clever; but it doesn't work, because that probability distribution is not known to sum to 1. (It would sum to 1 if U(n) = 1 for all n.)