AlephNeil comments on A simple counterexample to deBlanc 2007? - Less Wrong

3 Post author: PhilGoetz 30 May 2011 05:09AM

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Comment author: AlephNeil 30 May 2011 03:09:52PM * 0 points [-]

No; the utility function is stipulated to be computable.

What Manfred is calling U(n) here corresponds to what the paper would call U(phi_n(k)).

Comment author: PhilGoetz 30 May 2011 06:12:14PM 0 points [-]

The utility function is defined as being computable over all possible input.

Comment author: AlephNeil 31 May 2011 11:44:54AM 0 points [-]

phi_n(k) may not halt.