Eugine_Nier comments on Rational Romantic Relationships, Part 1: Relationship Styles and Attraction Basics - Less Wrong

48 Post author: lukeprog 05 November 2011 11:06AM

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Comment author: Eugine_Nier 06 November 2011 04:38:37AM 9 points [-]

Keep in mind that utility isn't linear in money.

Comment author: ArisKatsaris 06 November 2011 04:46:48AM *  15 points [-]

No, but I doubt it's so non-linear for most people that it remotely justifies such a choice.

If someone e.g. urgently needs a life-saving surgery that requires 500$, then they may be justified to choose a certainty of $500 over a 15% probability of a million dollars. But outside such made-up scenarios, I very seriously doubt it.

Comment author: DanielVarga 06 November 2011 04:55:08PM 1 point [-]

Obviously, I agree. But let me ask: for what values of X would you choose X$ with 15% chance instead of 1,000,000,000$ with 100% chance?

A quite extreme, but still somewhat defensible theoretical assumption is that utility is logarithmic in money. I once heard Bernoulli already worked with this assumption, many hundred years before Neumann-Morgenstern, and it is probably not so silly to assume this near the power-law tail of the wealth distribution. Not that I think it means anything, but from this admittedly extreme starting point, we get that lg(500) = 2.7 is three times as useful as 0.15*lg(1000000) = 0.9.

Comment author: Luke_A_Somers 06 November 2011 08:02:17PM *  7 points [-]

That assumes someone who initially has $1, and in that case it's certainly true. If on the other hand you initially have, say, $10k...

log(10.5k) - log(10k) ≈ 0.02

0.15 * (log(1.01M) - log(10k)) ≈ 0.3

The crossover point based on this system is $191. Less than that, and you do better with $500. More than that, and you'd try for the million.

Comment author: jimmy 07 November 2011 07:14:00PM *  1 point [-]

That's not quite right in practice either. Even if you took all my money, I'd still take the 15% chance at $1M and maybe sell a 15% chance of $5k for $500.

Or if that is somehow not allowed, then I'd run into a bit of debt until my next pay check. Even if I really was spending all the money I make and averaging $0, $500 is a mere blip in the noise, not a factor of infinity more money.

It makes more sense to look at the total money in over whatever time scale you plan for.

Comment author: Luke_A_Somers 08 November 2011 02:27:01PM *  0 points [-]

Yeah, the prospect of other incomes makes a big difference. I neglected to include a requirement that the initial amount, whichever value it takes, is as much as you can come up with before you'll be needing money again.

Comment author: Michael_Sullivan 27 November 2011 04:37:34AM 0 points [-]

The present value of my expected future income stream from normal labor, plus my current estimated net worth is what I use when I do these calculations for myself as a business owner considering highly risky investments.

For most people with decent social capital (almost anyone middle class in a rich country), the minimum base number in typical situations should be something >200kUS$ even for those near bankruptcy.

Obviously, this does not cover non-typical situations involving extremely important time-sensitive opportunities requiring more cash than you can raise on short notice (such as the classic life-saving medical treatment required).

Comment author: DanielVarga 06 November 2011 09:24:41PM 0 points [-]

Very true, thanks, I missed that. Obviously I am not an economist. Maybe Eliezer has only ever asked the question from people having less than 191 dollars.

Comment author: HughRistik 10 November 2011 01:41:19AM *  2 points [-]

Many people are in debt. If you are, then your net worth is less than $191.

Comment author: wedrifid 10 November 2011 12:26:09PM *  0 points [-]

Why would people downvote this? Isn't it both correct and obvious? It also has fairly significant implication as to the extent of the applicability of the simplified model.

Comment author: RichardKennaway 10 November 2011 02:50:38PM *  1 point [-]

It depends on what is meant by "debt" and "net value", and as those words are usually used, it is false.

If I borrow money to buy a house, the house being security for the loan, then I am "in debt" by the ordinary use of those words -- I owe money to someone -- yet if my net worth includes the house, it should still be positive (if the lender was prudent). If I borrow money, secured only against my expectation of future income, then again assuming a prudent lender, the present expected value of that future income will exceed the value of the loan. In that case, I am "in debt", and my net worth will be positive or negative depending on whether expected future income is counted or not.

The more usual word for someone whose net worth is negative, measured by the whole of their debts and assets, is "bankrupt".

Comment author: Vladimir_M 11 November 2011 05:48:01AM 6 points [-]

The more usual word for someone whose net worth is negative, measured by the whole of their debts and assets, is "bankrupt".

To be precise, it's "insolvent." "Bankrupt" means that a particular kind of legal decision has been made about how the assets and liabilities of the insolvent party will be handled.

Also, there's the issue of one of the more spectacular and shameless rhetorical scams of the modern age, in which certain kinds of insolvency get to be described as "illiquidity," whereupon such insolvent parties get to claim a blank check on the rest of us to fix their problem.

Comment author: wedrifid 13 November 2011 05:51:11AM *  1 point [-]

To be precise, it's "insolvent."

To be more precise it is "balance sheet insolvency". "Insolvent" also commonly refers to the inability to pay debts when they fall due ("cash flow insolvency').

Also, there's the issue of one of the more spectacular and shameless rhetorical scams of the modern age, in which certain kinds of insolvency get to be described as "illiquidity," whereupon such insolvent parties get to claim a blank check on the rest of us to fix their problem.

Grrr. Yes. I am not a fan! I'd be even more averse to the idea when the blank check was coming from me.

Comment author: wedrifid 10 November 2011 03:18:18PM 1 point [-]

The more usual word for someone whose net worth is negative, measured by the whole of their debts and assets, is "bankrupt".

That's not the word either. Obviously simple 'debt' isn't the word: someone with a million dollars in cash who owes his mate ten bucks for the meal the other night. But 'bankrupt' means a different thing again. If you have a $1m mortgage on a house and the property prices have fallen then the value of your assets may well have fallen below that needed to cover your debt but you still aren't bankrupt. At least, not yet and not while you can keep up the payments. Unless your lawyers and accountants recommend it as an option.

I would have guessed the word for what Hugh was referring to would be "net debt" but that is a bit off too (since it doesn't take into account long term assets, just liquid assets). Just plain "deficit net worth" is the simplest description I know of but it seems to be something that deserves a word of its own. Anyone know of one?

Comment author: Craig_Heldreth 10 November 2011 03:31:52PM 2 points [-]

It is slang but the convention is "underwater".

Comment author: Luke_A_Somers 08 November 2011 02:29:46PM 0 points [-]

The math works out that he's in contact with people with more than $191 - and that makes sense.

Comment author: DanielVarga 08 November 2011 10:09:07PM 0 points [-]

I meant the "random women" he was talking about.