Maybe. It depends on the distributions over programming ability that the test and color, respectively, provide. [ETA1: I should have written, "the test and the conjunction of test and color, respectively...". The point is that, conditioned on test results, color could be independent of ability.] [ETA2: Though, if your "further conclusions" was meant to include things beyond what the test tests for, but which correlate with color, then you're definitely right.]

The test's being colorblind doesn't mean that its results don't correlate with color in the population of subjects. It means that, were you to fix a test subject and vary its color while holding everything else constant, its test results wouldn't correlate with the color change.