What Bayesian point of view is he saying is seriously compromised, and how? Is it:
ETA: Amplifying that, the cognitive flaws your friend refers to are evidence for not-3, evidence which I expect we would agree with, but this does not contradict 1 and 4, which I expect we also agree with. On the other hand, 2 and not-3 do not sit well together. If, according to 2, the brain is a machine for performing Bayesian computation, why are the results in humans so strikingly non-Bayesian?
I will reply to this a little more when I get some free time, but another paper which might be put into proposition 2 is here: < http://www.svcl.ucsd.edu/publications/journal/2009/pami09-Sal.pdf >. This, along with Bayesian surprise by Itti and Koch at USC, does a good job of showing how Bayesian models of focus-of-attention mechanisms in the mammalian brain actually perform well computationally and experimentally.
I have recently been corresponding with a friend who studies psychology regarding human cognition and the best underlying models for understanding it. His argument, summarized very briefly, is given by this quote:
I am having trouble synthesizing a response that captures the Bayesian point of view (and is sufficiently backed up by sources so that it will be useful for my friend rather than just gainsaying of the argument) because I am mostly a decision theory / probability person. Are these works of psychology and neuroscience really illustrating that human emotion governs decision making? What are some good neuroscience papers to read that deal with this, and how do Bayesians respond? It may be that everything he mentions above is a correct assessment (I don't know and don't have enough time to read the books right now), but that it is irrelevant if you want to make good decisions rather than just accept the types of decisions we already make.