Eugine_Nier comments on Rationality Lessons Learned from Irrational Adventures in Romance - Less Wrong

54 Post author: lukeprog 04 October 2011 02:45AM

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Comment author: Jack 12 October 2011 05:19:37AM -1 points [-]

Wikipedia looks fine:

The predominant usage in modern English refers to persons hostile to those of differing sex, race, ethnicity, religion or spirituality, nationality, language, inter-regional prejudice, gender and sexual orientation, age, homelessness, various medical disorders particularly behavioral disorders and addictive disorders.

(Note: be prepared to explain why being a "bigot" is obviously a very bad thing".)

I am not so prepared-- though it doesn't seem especially controversial to me I am vaguely open to an argument that it isn't obvious. But I don't see why I should be expected to explain why.

Comment author: Eugine_Nier 12 October 2011 06:54:32AM *  1 point [-]

Also, what do you mean by hostile?

If I believe it's better for people not to have behavioral disorders or/and addictive disorders develop a treatment and encourage people with said disorders to take it, am I being hostile? What if I do the same w.r.t. homosexuality?

BTW, if the answer to both those questions is "no", I have no further problem with the definition.

Comment author: Jack 12 October 2011 07:01:34AM *  0 points [-]

Also, what do you mean by hostile?

Treating someone like an enemy. Shrug. I don't have a clear bright line or anything, the amount and intensity of bigotry someone must exhibit before I'm comfortable calling them a bigoted person is pretty high.

If I believe it's better for people not to have behavioral disorders or/and addictive disorders develop a treatment and encourage people with said disorders to take it am I being hostile? What if I do the same w.r.t. homosexuality?

In both cases it depends on why you want people to take the treatment.

We're now very far from what was a pretty contingent defense of another commenter's position and I don't especially enjoy the topic...