ArisKatsaris comments on Harry Potter and the Methods of Rationality discussion thread, part 8 - Less Wrong

8 Post author: Unnamed 25 August 2011 02:17AM

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Comment author: ArisKatsaris 04 September 2011 02:58:11PM *  5 points [-]

(And logic? In a fiction universe where we can trust nothing?)

This is Harry Potter and the Methods of Rationality. If we're not supposed to use our logic here, then the whole thing is pointless.

There's nothing in Harry Potter-style time travel (either canon or MOR!verse) about not touching or interacting with past versions of yourself

I must have missed this. Where is it written that you can touch your past self, mingle magics with your past self, cast spells in your past self, etc.?

Absence of evidence is evidence of absence. You have a number of time-travel interactions in both canon and MOR!verse where you could attempt to find any such hint of a prohibition, sense of "Doom", bouts of sickness is relation to time-travel, etc, etc.

If you can't find such evidence of a prohibition, or the other phenomena you describe, then that is evidence against there being such a prohibition or such phenomena.

Comment author: Vladimir_Nesov 04 September 2011 03:10:00PM -2 points [-]

If we're not supposed to use our logic here, then the whole thing is pointless.

You don't use logic because you're "supposed to".

Comment author: ArisKatsaris 04 September 2011 03:30:39PM *  1 point [-]

You don't use logic because you're "supposed to".

I won't downvote you, but I was tempted to, for seemingly intentional lack of clarity in your objection. Making us guess at what you mean seems a waste of our collective time.

By the phrase "if we not supposed to use our logic" I meant "if we can't apply our logic to make testable predictions about plot-points and revelations in subsequent chapters".

Is that more agreeable with you?

Comment author: wedrifid 04 September 2011 03:20:56PM *  0 points [-]

If we're not supposed to use our logic here, then the whole thing is pointless.

You don't use logic because you're "supposed to".

If we're going to divert to this tangent then I'll say that yes, in fact, often people do use logic because they are "supposed to". You could make the normative claim that you're not "supposed to" use logic because you're "supposed to". But the descriptive one is as false as the normative one is arbitrary.

Comment author: Vladimir_Nesov 04 September 2011 03:25:48PM 0 points [-]

But the descriptive one is false.

And wasn't intended meaning.

Comment author: wedrifid 04 September 2011 03:28:07PM 0 points [-]

And wasn't intended meaning.

And intended meaning of ArisKatsaris fits perfectly well in context.

Comment author: Vladimir_Nesov 04 September 2011 03:32:07PM 0 points [-]

I don't think it was. If there is any notion of consequences at all, there are methods to be developed for steering consequences where you want them to go, it's not a matter of social or genre convention to break this principle.

Comment author: wedrifid 04 September 2011 03:38:20PM 1 point [-]

I don't believe you parsed the context correctly.

Comment author: Vladimir_Nesov 04 September 2011 03:44:44PM *  0 points [-]

Yes. I dislike connotations of "supposed to", since it equivocates between laws of thought and social expectations, but this distinction doesn't map to the context, because two worlds are involved instead of just one. In context, the intended distinction is between the author following or breaking in-world laws of nature, filtering the evidence essentially.