pianocigarette comments on Calibrate your self-assessments - Less Wrong

68 Post author: Yvain 09 October 2011 11:26PM

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Comment author: pianocigarette 14 October 2011 03:02:52PM *  3 points [-]

Forgive my noobity, but what are n, p in n=1 so p>>>.05?

Comment author: JoshuaZ 14 October 2011 03:09:00PM 2 points [-]

In this context n is the sample size of the number people, and p is the associated chance that this would occur by chance. In classical statistics one generally cares about results that have a p < .05 (that is there's a less than 1/20 chance of the result occurring due to random chance).

Comment author: Apprentice 18 October 2011 11:59:08PM 2 points [-]

Yes, but it's worth spelling out the heresy more explicitly. A good LW Bayesian isn't supposed to regard the number .05 as somehow special. Also, the whole notion of p values is misguided and counterproductive. Any more questions?