shminux comments on Scientist vs. philosopher on conceptual analysis - Less Wrong

10 Post author: lukeprog 20 September 2011 03:10PM

You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.

Comments (24)

You are viewing a single comment's thread.

Comment author: shminux 20 September 2011 05:24:27PM *  4 points [-]

The situation reminds me of the relationship between math and physics. When the necessary mathematical tools are missing, physicists invent the crude new ones to "just get it done", rather than wait for the math to catch up. Then the mathematicians swoop in and refine, polish, beautify and admire them, and scoff at the ugly earlier implements.

Some notable examples that come to mind are calculus, conservation laws, Dirac's delta and bra-ket notation in quantum mechanics, path integrals, renormalization.

Lest some overzealous reader misunderstands my point, I do not intend to badmouth math and mathematicians. The elegant new tools often lead to better understanding of the underlying physical phenomena and consequently new discoveries in physics. The same can rarely be said of philosophy.

Comment author: komponisto 20 September 2011 10:00:19PM 7 points [-]

Some notable examples that come to mind are calculus, conservation laws, Dirac's delta and bra-ket notation in quantum mechanics, path integrals, renormalization.

Calculus is not a fair example, because the disciplines of mathematics and physics were not separated at the time; the work of Newton and Leibniz was the best "mathematics" (as well as "physics") of the era. Noether's theorem is not an example at all but a counterexample: a mathematical theorem, proved by a mathematician, that provided new insights into physics.

Dirac's delta and Feynman path integrals are fair examples of your point.

Comment author: shminux 21 September 2011 03:46:41AM 3 points [-]

I concede the calculus point on a technicality :). Certainly there was no clear math/physics separation at the time (and the term physics as currently understood didn't even exist), but the drive to develop the math necessary to solve real-life problems was certainly there, and separate from the drive to do pure mathematics. And it took a long time before the d/dx notation was properly formalized.

As for the Noether's theorem, it was inspired by Einstein proving the energy-momentum tensor conservation in General Relativity, without realizing that it was a special case of a very general principle.

Comment author: komponisto 21 September 2011 03:20:32PM *  1 point [-]

Certainly there was no clear math/physics separation at the time (and the term physics as currently understood didn't even exist), but the drive to develop the math necessary to solve real-life problems was certainly there, and separate from the drive to do pure mathematics

Except that the problems in question (explaining the motion of the planets and so on) would not have been considered "real-life problems" back then; rather, they would have been considered "abstract philosophical speculations" that would have carried the same kind of stigma among "practical men" that "pure mathematics" does today.

And it took a long time before the d/dx notation was properly formalized.

I think you mean "justified"; if there was one thing Leibniz was good at, it was formalizing!

As for the Noether's theorem, it was inspired by Einstein proving the energy-momentum tensor conservation in General Relativity, without realizing that it was a special case of a very general principle.

According to your Wikipedia link, it represented the solution to a physical problem in its own right: a paradox wherein conservation appeared to be violated in GR.