Jack comments on Open thread, October 2011 - Less Wrong

5 Post author: MarkusRamikin 02 October 2011 09:05AM

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Comment author: Jack 06 October 2011 02:48:33AM 3 points [-]

"Water produces cold" is a plausible hypothesis for someone using Earth/Air/Water/Fire chemistry.

Comment author: lessdazed 06 October 2011 03:28:15AM *  0 points [-]

They did well enough to figure out or intuit or guess that a simpler explanation was better: You're not giving them enough credit, as some went beyond that chemistry.

Heracletus:

All things are an interchange for fire, and fire for all things, just like goods for gold and gold for goods.

Aristotle speaking about Thales:

"For it is necessary that there be some nature (φύσις), either one or more than one, from which become the other things of the object being saved... Thales the founder of this type of philosophy says that it is water."

See also here.

So granted that they could narrow it down to one "element", was it possible for them to do better than to guess as to the nature of thermodynamics? To guess which is the absence of the other?

Comment author: Jack 06 October 2011 03:42:05AM 1 point [-]

As my reply to your original comment indicates I give them plenty of credit -- I'm not sure they didn't guess that cold was the absence of heat.

You have the pre-socratics a bit mixed up. Heracletus and Thales are before the five element system of Aristotle. Heracletus only had three elements in his cosmology and fire was the most important. Some ancient cosmologies made one element central...I'm not sure what that has to do with the question?

But certainly it is possible some of them surmised that cold was the absence of fire or something like that.