byrnema comments on Not By Empathy Alone - Less Wrong

19 Post author: gwern 05 October 2011 12:36AM

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Comment author: byrnema 05 October 2011 07:30:24PM 4 points [-]

Yes, but just to iterate: it's a failure to empathize not a failure of empathy.

Comment author: Ubiquity 07 October 2011 11:27:13PM 0 points [-]

The semantics are important in understanding the debate. Perhaps that is obvious to the rationalists here, but it seems to me this was essentially a semantic debate (the last few comments between gwern and byrnema), with which I tend to agree with byrnema. Perhaps it could be helpful to clearly define the expected denotation of "empathy"? Wikipedia states "Empathy is the capacity to recognize and, to some extent, share feelings (such as sadness or happiness) that are being experienced by another sapient or semi-sapient being" whereas dictionary dot com defines it quite a bit more broadly as "1. the intellectual identification with or vicarious experiencing of the feelings, thoughts, or attitudes of another. 2. the imaginative ascribing to an object, as a natural object or work of art, feelings or attitudes present in oneself: By means of empathy, a great painting becomes a mirror of the self. "

I guess my point is I have always thought of the term in the broader sense, and I don't think anyone can have any understanding whatsoever without the broader form of "Empathy". Perhaps my own connotations are filtering in there too.

Comment author: false_vacuum 05 October 2011 07:45:38PM 0 points [-]

Yes, exactly.