The semantics are important in understanding the debate. Perhaps that is obvious to the rationalists here, but it seems to me this was essentially a semantic debate (the last few comments between gwern and byrnema), with which I tend to agree with byrnema. Perhaps it could be helpful to clearly define the expected denotation of "empathy"? Wikipedia states "Empathy is the capacity to recognize and, to some extent, share feelings (such as sadness or happiness) that are being experienced by another sapient or semi-sapient being" whereas dictionary dot com defines it quite a bit more broadly as "1. the intellectual identification with or vicarious experiencing of the feelings, thoughts, or attitudes of another. 2. the imaginative ascribing to an object, as a natural object or work of art, feelings or attitudes present in oneself: By means of empathy, a great painting becomes a mirror of the self. "
I guess my point is I have always thought of the term in the broader sense, and I don't think anyone can have any understanding whatsoever without the broader form of "Empathy". Perhaps my own connotations are filtering in there too.
The following are extracts from the paper “Is Empathy Necessary For Morality?” (philpapers) by Jesse Prinz (WP) of CUNY; recently linked in a David Brooks New York Times column, “The Limits of Empathy”:
1 Introduction
2 Is Empathy Necessary for Moral Judgment?
3 Is Empathy Necessary for Moral Development?
4 Is Empathy Necessary for Moral Conduct?
5 Should we Cultivate An Empathy Based Morality?
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