= 27d567bc2d48d9f40e9ccc20ea370b15)
Eugine_Nier comments on [SEQ RERUN] Why Are Individual IQ Differences OK? - Less Wrong
You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.
= 783df68a0f980790206b9ea87794c5b6)
Loading…= b715d02e85f7b3b4ae65ca3d3e450868)
Subscribe to RSS Feed
Powered by Reddit
= f037147d6e6c911a85753b9abdedda8d)
You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.
Comments (119)
I meant lots of people tied for the nth percentile in terms of your estimate of their intelligence, which was happening in your scenarios because the amount of information available was discrete and very small.
Okay, good. That makes a lot more sense.
What you say is true of the counterexamples I've described explicitly so far. But it is just an artifact of their being the simplest representatives of their family. I can construct similar counterexamples where the number of subpopulations in World 2 is arbitrarily large, and each subpopulation has a different expected intelligence. The proportion of people tied for any given expected intelligence can be arbitrarily small.
ETA: Also, these counterexamples work even if we redefine "treating smart people as dumb" to mean, "treating someone in the top 1% as if they were in the bottom 1%". We still have a World 1 where no one smart is treated as dumb, and a World 2 where some smart people are treated as dumb.