pedanterrific comments on How to understand people better - Less Wrong

76 Post author: pwno 14 October 2011 07:53PM

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Comment author: pedanterrific 12 October 2011 01:57:15AM 0 points [-]

Alice is not lying.

So, hypothetical: if we were both standing outside under the clear blue sky and I said to you "The sky is green" you would say I was not lying? Assume we are speaking English, that both of us have working color vision, etc.

Comment author: Jack 12 October 2011 02:10:49AM 3 points [-]

I'd be trying to figure out from your tone, body language, facial expressions etc what was going on. Is pedanterrific just being weird? Has he gone crazy? Have I gone crazy? Is he trying to performatively illustrate a position on the unknowability of qualia? You've made it sort of difficult by providing an example of an obviously false statement wherein there is no other information about what you're doing-- but I certainly don't feel compelled to call it a lie.

Consider sarcasm.

Comment author: pedanterrific 12 October 2011 02:15:16AM 2 points [-]

I guess where you and I differ is that I don't consider those mutually exclusive. If I'm stating something which I know to not be true, I'm lying. I may also be doing other things (e.g. stating a prearranged signal like "the eagle has landed"), but all that - "being weird", "performatively illustrating a position" etc. - doesn't mean I'm not lying.

Comment author: dlthomas 12 October 2011 02:25:07AM 2 points [-]

I, for one, understand that the definition of lying you are choosing to use here is simply "making false statements." It does not make sense to argue over what definition is "correct." I do want to be sure you are aware that many people understand lying to be "intending to deceive," particularly when things are morally charged, and you would be wise to taboo "lie" when this is relevant.

As a matter of curiosity: pursuant to your particular definition of lying as you were using it above, would you call making a true statement with the intent that it deceive and the knowledge that it is likely to do so "a lie" or "not a lie"?

Comment author: pedanterrific 12 October 2011 02:48:33AM 3 points [-]

It does not make sense to argue over what definition is "correct."

I certainly hope that's not what it looked like I was doing.

I do want to be sure you are aware

Oh, I am. I was just curious about Jack's specific definition.

As a matter of curiosity: pursuant to your particular definition of lying as you were using it above, would you call making a true statement with the intent that it deceive and the knowledge that it is likely to do so "a lie" or "not a lie"?

In point of fact, I would call that a "deception", not a "lie". So, [a statement made with intent to deceive] = a "deception", and [a statement of something that is known to be false] = a "lie". So the two qualities are independent of each other. (Incidentally, [a statement of something that is false, but thought to be correct] would be a "mistake".)

I wonder whether the legal system considers "making a true statement with the intent to deceive" perjury?

Comment author: dlthomas 12 October 2011 03:15:27AM *  1 point [-]

I certainly hope that's not what it looked like I was doing.

It looked like what was generally happening - I'm not interested in meting out blame for it.

I do want to be sure you are aware

Oh, I am. I was just curious about Jack's specific definition.

Good.

As a matter of curiosity: pursuant to your particular definition of lying as you were using it above, would you call making a true statement with the intent that it deceive and the knowledge that it is likely to do so "a lie" or "not a lie"?

In point of fact, I would call that a "deception", not a "lie". So, [a statement made with intent to deceive] = a "deception", and [a statement of something that is known to be false] = a "lie". So the two qualities are independent of each other. (Incidentally, [a statement of something that is false, but thought to be correct] would be a "mistake".)

Alright, interesting. FWIW, I can go either way on that one.

I wonder whether the legal system considers "making a true statement with the intent to deceive" perjury?

To some extent, wouldn't this amount to most defenses when the accused is guilty? This seems like a bad idea, unfortunately.

Comment author: pedanterrific 12 October 2011 03:22:10AM *  0 points [-]

I wonder whether the legal system considers "making a true statement with the intent to deceive" perjury?

To some extent, wouldn't this amount to most defenses when the accused is guilty? This seems like a bad idea, unfortunately.

You lost me. (Pleading "Not Guilty" when you are guilty isn't perjury because it's not under oath, but I don't see what that has to do with "making a true statement with the intent to deceive".)

Also, you only need the > at the beginning of each paragraph.

Comment author: dlthomas 12 October 2011 03:27:59AM 1 point [-]

Generally, statements made in the defense would be made with the intent that people draw the conclusion that the defendant is, in fact, not guilty. A guilty defendant could then not legally testify at all.

Also, you only need the > at the beginning of each paragraph.

Gracias.

Comment author: pedanterrific 12 October 2011 04:02:03AM 0 points [-]

A guilty defendant could then not legally testify at all.

Well, there's a reason people plead the Fifth.

Y de nada.

Comment author: Jack 12 October 2011 02:54:54AM *  1 point [-]

I wonder whether the legal system considers "making a true statement with the intent to deceive" perjury?

Googles ...

The third element of a perjury offense is proof of specific intent, that is, that the defendant made the false statement with knowledge of its falsity, rather than as a result of confusion, mistake or faulty memory.

Though I suppose this wouldn't protect someone from prosecution for sarcasm.

Comment author: dlthomas 12 October 2011 03:04:28AM 1 point [-]

You wanted the previous page. Yes, for perjury, the statement must actually be false.

Comment author: Jack 12 October 2011 03:07:10AM 1 point [-]

Oh, you're totally right. I misread the parent.

Comment author: dlthomas 12 October 2011 03:17:32AM 1 point [-]

No worries.

Comment author: pedanterrific 12 October 2011 03:23:41AM *  0 points [-]

For what it's worth, I'm not actually sure what I was going for there.

Edit: Yeah, that was probably it.

Comment author: dlthomas 12 October 2011 03:29:23AM 1 point [-]

I assumed "curiosity"

Comment author: Jack 12 October 2011 02:25:55AM *  1 point [-]

Yeah. I mean-- usage sometimes differs. I don't want to make this exactly a definition debate. But look at how Vaniver used the word:

Alice saying "nothing is wrong" rather than "let's not talk about it now" is an out-and-out lie. It's not clear that Bob inferring that Alice is repeatedly lying would reflect better on Bob.

That usage suggests to me a meaning of liar that implies deceit (though Vaniver later said he didn't mean to imply that).

I do think it would be a social/linguistic error to respond to weirdness, joking hyperbole, or sarcasm with with "Liar!" or similar variant in a sincere tone.

Comment author: pedanterrific 12 October 2011 05:42:46AM 1 point [-]

I do think it would be a social/linguistic error to respond to weirdness, joking hyperbole, or sarcasm with with "Liar!" or similar variant in a sincere tone.

Generally I prefer "Get thee behind me, Prince of Lies!" or possibly "You should be a statistician!" if I'm feeling particularly vindictive.

But I get your point.

Comment author: Tyrrell_McAllister 12 October 2011 02:12:59AM 0 points [-]

Do you intend to persuade your interlocutor that the sky is in fact green? If not, then you are not lying.

Comment author: pedanterrific 12 October 2011 02:18:30AM 0 points [-]

Okay. So, what word do you use to describe the act of "stating things which you know to not be true"? Or does your variant of English not have a word for that act?

Comment author: Tyrrell_McAllister 12 October 2011 02:20:09AM 2 points [-]

Such an act has different names in different contexts. In your scenario, what motivated your statement that the sky is green?

Comment author: dlthomas 12 October 2011 02:26:34AM 1 point [-]

Alternatively, if you need to sum up the action in any context, the phrase "stating things which you know to not be true" suffices...

Comment author: pedanterrific 12 October 2011 03:53:19AM 0 points [-]

It does, doesn't it? Fancy that.

Comment author: pedanterrific 12 October 2011 02:30:29AM 0 points [-]

I don't see how that is supposed to matter. But because I'm curious, some hypothetical situations:

My motivation was to find out how my interlocutor would describe my statement.

Assume that you don't and can't know my motivation, as is commonly the case in the real world.

It was due to a random causeless quantum fluctuation, similar in theory to the idea of a 'Boltzmann brain', which acted on my neurons in a such a way as to output that statement and make me rationalize it as my idea.

Comment author: Jack 12 October 2011 02:42:02AM 0 points [-]

I don't see how that is supposed to matter.

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/meaning/#GriPro

meaning which can be thought of as the conjunction of two claims: (1) facts about what expressions mean are to be explained, or analyzed, in terms of facts about what speakers mean by utterances of them, and (2) facts about what speakers mean by their utterances can be explained in terms of their intentions.

Propositional theories of meaning fail precisely because they have a great deal of trouble accounting for situations where our words don't match our intentions.

Intention always matters.

Comment author: pedanterrific 12 October 2011 02:58:11AM 2 points [-]

Intention always matters.

What does it say about me that my first instinctive response was "I'm a consequentialist, not a virtue ethicist."

Comment author: lessdazed 12 October 2011 03:05:27AM 2 points [-]

It's not good enough to just be a consequentialist rather than a virtue ethicist. You have to be a conequentialist for the right reasons or it doesn't count.

Comment author: Tyrrell_McAllister 12 October 2011 03:40:45AM *  1 point [-]

Intentions are physical facts about brains. If you care about those particular physical facts, then you can be a consequentialist who cares about intentions.

Often, some of the physical facts that determine whether a certain word applies to a certain situation happen to be physical facts that fall under the heading of "intentions".

Comment author: pedanterrific 12 October 2011 03:56:33AM 1 point [-]

It's just... if "intention always matters" when choosing which word to use to describe someone else's actions, you spend an inordinate amount of time not knowing how to describe something while you gather data on the other agent's intentions, data which may not ever be definitive. That seems to rather miss the point of language.

Comment author: TimS 12 October 2011 02:38:35AM 0 points [-]

When an actor says, "I am Hamlet, prince of Denmark" is he lying?

If yes, then why is there a negative connotation in the word lying?

Comment author: pedanterrific 12 October 2011 03:05:34AM 2 points [-]

When an actor says, "I am Hamlet, prince of Denmark" is he lying?

Well he's certainly not telling the truth, and he's (probably) not honestly mistaken, so sure.

If yes, then why is there a negative connotation in the word lying?

I'm not exactly sure I'm qualified to answer that, but if I had to speculate... because it's easier to accidentally mislead people by assuming they know you're not telling the truth than the opposite, and because it's valuable to society to pretend rigorous truth-telling is more laudable than it really is (i.e. "honest" has an unreservedly positive connotation, despite the fact that there are common social situations in which it is terribly impolite to actually be honest). Does that make sense?

Comment author: shminux 13 October 2011 12:02:25AM 0 points [-]

Role playing can hardly be considered lying, as the latter usually implies an intent to deceive.

Comment author: pedanterrific 13 October 2011 01:00:03AM 0 points [-]

I am aware that this is the common understanding, yes. Apparently my definition is rather idiosyncratic.

Comment author: TimS 12 October 2011 11:50:45PM 0 points [-]

This sounds vaguely like the idea once prevalent in legal proceedings that actors were not trustworthy as witnesses because their skill acting in plays showed that they could commit perjury undetected by the jury.

That theory is no longer accepted in law. And I think the modern understanding - that actors are no more or less likely to be dishonest than any other citizen - is the more rational position. Is society's modern view wrong?

Comment author: pedanterrific 13 October 2011 12:53:06AM 2 points [-]

Uh... well first of all, I don't see what any of those things have to do with each other. To put my objections in some kind of order:

  1. The idea that actors' skill at lying is a reason to distrust their testimony is ridiculous. Juries, and people in general, are much worse lie detectors than they believe themselves to be. The bar is set so low that probably only really, unusually bad liars are ever caught by that method.

  2. That said, experience and skill at acting probably does generalize into skill at other forms of lying - that seems intuitively true, and it's certainly been the case in my experience, so I have no reason to doubt it.

  3. The unrelated claim of whether actors are equally likely to be dishonest as anyone else is also a terrible indicator of their reliability under oath. Presumably people who perjure themselves have a compelling reason, such that a constitutional tendency toward honesty wouldn't do what the threat of jailtime did not.

  4. That said, I have no idea whether actors are more, equally or less likely to be dishonest than the general population. I'm not sure how you'd go about testing that hypothesis, either.

Does that about clear it up?