Not just other bases. I can construct another function as follows: Fix a basis for R over Q. I can do this if I believe in the axiom of choice. Call the elements of that basis x(i). Consider then the function that takes elements of log_x, writes them with respect to the basis and then zeros the coordinate connected to a fixed basis element x(0). This function will have your desired property and is not a constant times log.
Interesting. Is it continuous as well?
I may be wrong. But I think EY say's in tech explanation that no other function satisfies that condition and is also proper.
Is this f a proper scoring rule?
Edit: Looking back at this a few years later. It is pretty embarrassing, but I'm going to leave it up.
Why don't we start treating the log2 of the probability — conditional on every available piece of information — you assign to the great conjunction, as the best measure of your epistemic success? Let's call: log_2(P(the great conjunction|your available information)), your "Bayesian competence". It is a deductive fact that no other proper scoring rule could possibly give: Score(P(A|B)) + Score(P(B)) = Score(P(A&B)), and obviously, you should get the same score for assigning P(A|B) to A, after observing B, and assigning P(B) to B a priori, as you would get for assigning P(A&B) to A&B a priori. The great conjunction is the conjunction of all true statements expressible in your idiolect. Your available information may be treated as the ordered set of your retained stimulus.
If this doesn't make sense, or you aren't familiar with these ideas, checkout Technical Explanation after checking out Intuitive Explanation.
It is standard LW doctrine that we should not name the highest value of rationality, and it is often defended quite brilliantly:
and of course also:
These quotes are from the end of Twelve Virtues
Should we really be wondering if there's a virtue higher than bayesian competence? Is there really a probability worth worrying about that the description of bayesian competence above is misunderstood? Is the description not simple enough to be mathematical? What mistake might I discover in my understanding of bayesian competence by comparing it to that which I did not name, after I've already given a proof that bayesian competence is proper, and that the restrictions: score(P(B)*P(A|B)) = score(P(B)) + score(P(A|B)), and: must be a proper scoring rule, uniquely specify Logb?
I really want answers to these questions. I am still undecided about them; and change my mind about them far too often.
Of course, your bayesian competence is ridiculously difficult to compute. But I am not proposing the measure for practical reasons. I am proposing the measure to demonstrate that degree of rationality is an objective quantity that you could compute given the source code to the universe, even though there are likely no variables in the source that ever take on this value. This may be of little to no value to the most obsessively pragmatic practitioners of rationality. But it would be a very interesting result to philosophers of science and rationality.
Updated to better express view of author, and take feedback into account. Apologies to any commenter who's comment may have been nullified.
The comment below:
has changed my mind about the openness of the questions I asked.