What determines whether an allele is recessive or dominant?
Through reading Wikipedia I have encountered one theory: gene A has two alleles which actually determine something important, like Parkinson's disease. In addition, gene M has two alleles which don't really do anything on their own, but they determine which allele of gene A is recessive and which is dominant (this mechanic is easy to model: you have two copies of each gene, making four total, and you need any two of the four to be flipped to "Parkinson").
The evolution fairy then makes one version of gene M universal in the population. This seems iffier to me: gene M and gene A act symmetrically, so why would one become universal and the other not? But maybe gene M is responsible for the dominance or recessiveness (?) of multiple genes, so there's greater selection pressure because it's relevant more often. After this, the dominance or recessiveness of gene A becomes essentially fixed, and we talk about one allele being dominant and the other recessive.
However, the other thing that the (very short) Wikipedia article on evolution of dominance says is that this hypothesis has been discredited, and is no longer generally believed. It's unclear to me why not to believe it, and what the alternative is, but there you have it.
Ok. There are a variety of different issues going on here. (With the disclaimer that I'm not a biologist).
First keep in mind that genes are discrete units and population sizes are finite. This allows for genetic drift which is when random sampling allows the frequency of a gene to change in the population as a random walk. This is especially easy to occur in small populations (since the sample sizes are then smaller). So two alleles can behave completely symmetrically and still have one go to fixation in a population, and similar remarks apply to symmetri...
Let's refine each other's understanding of biological evolution, as encapsulated as best we can manage in a short comment.
It's time to be lesswrong. Starting with me.