Are they interpreting it as a question of signalling without even reaching the point of evaluating it as an ontological statement?
I identify as politically libertarian. I also find that the question "Does a dollar mean more to a poor person than it does to a rich person?" somewhat loaded semantically. Depending on which of a wide array of various interpretations of the statement I could answer -- legitimately -- either way.
And yet it is taken as a "given", which progressives "got right" and libertarians "didn't".
I wonder what would happen to that rate of answers if the question was rephrased as follows: "A poor person will suffer more for the lack of one dollar than a rich person will suffer for the lack of one dollar.", and as follows: "A poor person is more likely to base his self-worth on how many dollars he owns than a rich person is likely to baes his self-worth on how many dollars he owns."
Both of these rephrasings are potential "effectively synonymous" statements to the original question, but I hope that their answers are quite obviously inverted from each other.
And yet it is taken as a "given", which progressives "got right" and libertarians "didn't".
Libertarians did get it right, actually - 70% of them. And 4% of progressives got it wrong.
A article in the Atlantic, linked to by someone on the unofficial LW IRC channel caught my eye. Nothing all that new for LessWrong readers, but still it is good to see any mention of such biases in mainstream media.
I break here to comment that I don't see why we would expect this to be so given the reality of academia.