“A dollar means more to a poor person than it does to a rich person”
"A poor person is more likely to base his self-worth on how many dollars he owns than a rich person is likely to base his self-worth on how many dollars he owns."
Huh? I don't see these statements as equivalent at all. If I try to map the second sentence onto the first, I get "Dollars mean more to a poor person than they do to a rich person". Use of the singular word dollar, to my dialect, rules out the "fraction of self-worth" interpretation.
A article in the Atlantic, linked to by someone on the unofficial LW IRC channel caught my eye. Nothing all that new for LessWrong readers, but still it is good to see any mention of such biases in mainstream media.
I break here to comment that I don't see why we would expect this to be so given the reality of academia.