"A poor person is more likely to base his self-worth on how many dollars he owns than a rich person is likely to baes his self-worth on how many dollars he owns."
This is not at all equivalent. A rich person might for example still base much of his self-worth on how much money he has but each dollar will be a smaller amount of self-worth. That's at least in the most obvious way of reading this statement to me. I don't think your suggested wordings are any better.
Possibly something like "All else being equal, a poor person will gain more utility from a dollar than a rich person would"? Even that has problems but that seems slightly better.
Possibly something like "All else being equal, a poor person will gain more utility from a dollar than a rich person would"? Even that has problems but that seems slightly better.
Actually, that's semantically equivalent to rephrasing #1, and as such semantically contradictory to rephrasing #2.
A rich person might for example still base much of his self-worth on how much money he has but each dollar will be a smaller amount of self-worth.
I figured someone might raise this objection. :)
Let's define the "rich" person as owning 10,0...
A article in the Atlantic, linked to by someone on the unofficial LW IRC channel caught my eye. Nothing all that new for LessWrong readers, but still it is good to see any mention of such biases in mainstream media.
I break here to comment that I don't see why we would expect this to be so given the reality of academia.